Science is evidence based, so we scientists MUST use terminology such as 'these results strongly suggest', or 'the most likely candidate is'... etc. No scientists worth a grain of salt would make claims such as 'this proves beyond a doubt' or other strong statements, because we all know that it may prove to be false.
What about the philosopher who claimed that 'all swans are white', because the thousands of swans he'd seen in Europe were all white? He subsequently came to Australia and, lo and behold, a black swan! Without visibly observing every sway in existence, the claim can never be proven to be true, only to be false. Evidence can be supported a million times, but it just takes one strong refutation to crush any 'fact'. That's why scientists 'strongly suggest' something to be factual without saying that it simply IS factual.
Extremely satisfactory imo.
How does one distinguish between a lack of evidence or an abundance thereof, if the report has the same rhetoric? And wouldn't this mean that most if not all of what we read in science journals/blogs is unsubstantiated rather than facts? And if there are no facts in the science community then to what merit do we hold their findings?
My intent is not to refute the actual study of scientists. And if they want to log their work, skeptical about it or not, and make these findings public, more power to them. It becomes a problem to me when their work becomes skewed somewhere along the line:
Science: We believe that..
Person1: They believe that..
Person2: It's like this..
There is evidence of this virtually everywhere.
OK, so let's say I'm looking at a protein kinase which has been implicated in increasing drought tolerance in wheat. Its corresponding gene is expressed strongly when plants are subject to drought or treated with ABA, drought stress activates the protein, there's a proven interaction between this protein and other, downstream, transcription factors implicated in drought stress responses... transgenic plants overexpressing this gene survive prolonged periods of drought stress whereas control plants do not, when you knock the gene out, the mutant plants are hypersensitive to drought.
With all these results, I would make the claim 'these results strongly suggest that protein kinase x is responsible for increasing the drought tolerance of wheat'. We can all see that the above evidence strongly supports this statement, but there's a minute chance that overexpressing this gene changes other aspects of the plant, and that the increased levels of RNA and protein activity are actually an effect rather than a cause of some other unknown factor, the factor which is actually giving the plant its 'drought tolerance'. We can't be certain, so to say 'Protein kinase x is responsible for increasing drought tolerance in wheat' cannot be proven beyond a doubt to be 'true'. If such evidence gives a 99.99% probability of something being true, isn't that good enough?
as per what is in bold
Are you implying that (1) overexpressing the gene, thus changing "other aspects" of the plant, might have no effect (direct or otherwise) with the tolerance of drought stress, and that (2) some other unknown factor, unrelated to the protein, is actually responsible for the plants tolerance to drought stress? How could this be a possibility if we can observe the plant being both tolerant to the stress with the gene present and intolerant when the gene is absent?
The only way that this theory is not factual is that, without overexpressing the gene, or the plant being absent of the gene, the plant will still be able to find a way to tolerate the drought. Because if the plant can not do this, then we can conclude that in fact, the protein/gene is responsible for the plants tolerance. But what if the plant finds a way to tolerate the drought
only because this gene is not present? This possibility, however, does not change the state of protein kinase x and it's effect on the plant. In addition, even if "factor A" is causing the gene to be overexpressed, or the overexpression of the gene causes "factor B" which is
directly responsible for the plants tolerance to the drought, it still does not change the state of the gene and it's effect on the plant (direct or otherwise) with its ability to tolerate the drought.
My apologies if I am not understanding this
theory correctly.
Ones called maths, the others called philosophy. Who's to say which is 'true', objectively speaking? Regardless, this statement has no bearing on how a scientist chooses to present his results.
What I said was pertaining to his character rather than his position on science. Certainly his presumptive statement may be true, but I was pointing out a flaw in the way he responded; rather than ask for evidence, he simply asked and then answered for me. I pointed that out as a weakness in his approach.