I apologize for any typos.
If you understood the difference between the two why are you making comments that suggest otherwise? It isn't a matter of us needing a law to tell us that being impaired while driving is wrong. It is a matter of driving while drunk not being inherently wrong. No law prohibiting it, no violation of the law. You're basing your opinion on what could happen i.e. someone could die by the hands of a drunk driver. What if no one is on the road at the time a person is driving drunk? What if there are no cars period? Would we still need the statute?
Thanks, but I could use a little more help because I am not understanding.
Are all crimes with possible detrimental outcomes excluded from being malum in se? Say i set up paper targets in my front window. The targets make it so i can no longer see out my window. I then shoot the targets. Its not likely the bullets would hit anyone, but there is a small chance someone maybe standing in front of my window or walking by on the sidewalk at that moment. I can only think blindly shooting a gun out my front window would be malum in se? How would you classify if someone knowingly has aids and doesnt tell their partner?
Correct me if im wrong, but the way I understand this is that categorizing crimes into these two categories is not black and white. As I previously said, i thought crimes are categorized into these categories by a civilized society.
I did a quick search trying to find any stats of peoples opinions on drunk driving but couldnt fin. However, I strongly believe if you were to take a poll, the vast majority would say drunk driving is wrong, and not because a law says that it is.
I did come across this article which I thought was kind of funny:
"If you ask 100,000 people whether drunk driving is good or bad, 100,000 of them will wonder why you're asking them such a dumb question.
"Bad," they'll say. "Drunk driving is bad. You're the worst pollster ever.""
So I still dont believe me categorizing drunk driving as malum in se is as outlandish as you made it seem.
Maybe we are not on the same page. When I say something like "I think DUI would be categorized as malum in se" I am trying to say how I believe it would be categorized by a civilized society between malum prohibitum or malum in se. I am starting to get the idea you are arguing your personal opinion that you dont think DUI is wrong?
I don't know why you aren't comprehending what I've typed. It is coherent and a reasonable person should understand things just fine. In any event let me retype this again.
What I'm saying is not a "third world idea" even though I referenced third world countries. The fact is, it is a HUMAN idea and can be extended to first world, second world, third world or any other "world" or society.
I am not sure what you think I am misunderstanding and i am not sure why you keep going back to this "human idea". I dont think I ever said your idea was a "third world idea" or that it wasnt a human idea. I just stated that you are using third world countries/ideals to support your idea. At least thats what I thought (apparently incorrectly) you did here:
if we were in a third world country, this guys family would have already been executed or would be on their way to being executed. If this were early america this fool would have been killed by now and his folks probably would be eating bullets also...
I guess since you included early America as an example I shouldve said third world AND/OR not modern, civilized societies rather than solely third world ideals. My apologies.
Regardless of that though, I understand it is a "human" idea. What isnt a human idea?
Along that line of thought, would anything be considered a third world ideal? Couldnt you argue the same thing for human sacrifice? While the there are still people in America that believe in it, I would personally considerate it a third world ideal.
Nevertheless, I have a hard time believing this was a commonly practiced tactic of early america. Im not sure if you have any examples?
Looking back, Dfresh77 seems to have a similar opinion as mine, so I dont believe I am totally coming from right field with this
When these type of things happen in 3rd world countries, their families don't get executed...but the person that committed the crime does, by the police or the hands of a citizen ...
Even in the early days in the united states families didn't get killed when their family members committed ugly crimes..
I previously overlooked/didnt answer this from you
We employ such tactics in times of war against so-called enemies so why should we refrain from utilizing extreme methods on citizens who do heinous crimes? So please, since you mentioned it. provide us with a highly logical and universally agreed on definition of a "civilized society."
I would like to believe we do not employ these tactics of shared culpability, although im sure SOME people do carry out these actions. However, these tactics are crimes of war (which should give you a good idea on how a civilized society feels on this matter). Do you have any examples of this occurring, preferably on a wider scale?
Yes, you can argue what a civilized society is. I do not care to go there with you haha. I believe we all understand what is meant by a civilized society and for the purpose of this discussion I will simply use modern America as an example. Just because there isnt a universally agreed upon definition doesnt mean there isnt a commonly accepted definition. Did i ever say there was a universally agreed upon definition of a civilized society? If not, why are you asking a leading question?
Perhaps you could give me a highly logical and universally accepted definition of heinous, since you mentioned it?
You seem against this civilized society term. To remind you, im not the one that brought up malum prohibitum and malum in se. If you do not like the term "civilized society" would you mind explaining malum prohibitum and malum in se without using this term or the like?
Your question is derived from a warped reading of my statement and is something you should seek to rectify. However, all it would take is a catalyst and a pen stroke and the idea would be accepted by the majority of people in any given country. Remember, countries utilize such methods in times of war and there should be no distinction when it comes to applying the law to citizens within a given country who have committed a heinous crime such as this. Their actions shock the community and the heart of the nation; therefore, such measures should be enacted to protect the stability and well being of the community.
My fault. My questions in this case was more rhetorical. I was just using it to support my case that shared culpability is not a wide-spread belief shared by the majority of people in a modern, civilized society like america. Your statement of "all it would take" seems to coincide with my belief that it is not an ideal currently held by the majority of the people in this country, so i think we can put that to rest.
And you very well may be right that it would be easy to get this idea supported by the majority, and we will probably never find out, but I dont think it would be that easy to do. When more than 1/3 of the states have gotten rid of the death penalty i have a hard time believing it would be a simple task to get the majority to support the idea of killing the offender and the offender's family members.
Did I say the majority of people believed this or that? If not, why are you asking a leading question and telling me what the majority currently believe?
No you didnt, and im sorry, that wasnt my point. I am basically trying to understand what you would consider a third world ideal, or rather, why you dont think shared culpability is a third world ideal. It seems we agree it is not a commonly accepted ideal by people in a civilized society, and the only examples you have presented are third world countries and early america. But yet we are stuck butting heads. I am just not understanding why you dont believe shared culpability is a third world ideal. Maybe I need a definition of "human idea" if its something other than what it sounds, or like i said above, an example of something that would be considered a third world ideal.
BTW, I'm not asking you rhetorical questions so here is a reposting of the question you failed to answer.
We employ such tactics in times of war against so-called enemies so why should we refrain from utilizing extreme methods on citizens who do heinous crimes?
above
It is highly illogical to openly state that you can't say I'm wrong, that you don't know the specifics about the successes/failures and can't name a specific country yet in the very next sentence say you highly doubt something.
Guess what? I disagree again haha. If I could say you were wrong for certain, there would be no doubt. If I cant say for certain, there is some doubt. It would be illogical for me to say that i do not know all of the facts, but that i am certain you are incorrect.
I am more than capable of using my knowledge/education, common sense, and reasoning to form an educated idea on a topic that I do not know all of the facts about. It doesnt matter if i openly state my background on the subject, the logic is the same. Making that statement openly gives you more information which will change your confidence and perception of my statement, but it doesnt make my statement more logical or illogical.
For instance, you make the statement "the population of the US is 20,000 people". It wouldnt matter if i said, "I cant say youre wrong for certain since i dont know the exact figure off the top of my head, but I highly doubt the population is 20,000 people. I think the population is slightly above 300 million." or if I said, "I disagree, i think the population is slightly above 300 million". The difference isnt the logic, its the amount of background information ive given you.
Now that I think about it, I can remember hearing of a couple countthat used to cut off family members hands and sometimes limbs if the father or whoever wasnt working hard enough, but no, I cant name them off the top of my head. But im not sure what impact this has on our argument anyway...
To go back a little, this little sub-argument started when I said that "If the laws and shared culpability worked so well in third world countries, why are people still committing inherently evil acts in these countries."
You responded:
In many places they have. In places where they haven't it can be linked to a lack of enforcement and that in itself can be attributed to a multitude of things.
As I asked before, do you have any support that this is true? Could you give me 1 example of a country that had shared culpability in the past and now has no inherently evil crimes committed? Judging by the fact that it has occurred "in many places" as you said, maybe you could give me more than one example? If not, maybe you could post some data showing a significant decrease in inherently evil crimes in a country that employed shared culpability. Or really any statistical data showing successes/failures of shared culpability and its affect on overall crime rates.
Do you have any support or evidence showing that the failure of this tactic is in fact linked to a lack of enforcement?
I believe it is fine to state your knowledge/credentials. You know where I am coming from when I do so. Obviously it would be more meaningful if you knew me personally, but I am being forthright and not trying to overstate my knowledge or infer I am more knowledgeable on the topic than i am, which i do not think is a problem. Your above statements make it sound as though you know all of the answers and have all the data to/for the questions that I am asking, which Im looking forward to learning.
Oh yeah, since you mentioned it, provide us with a highly logical and universally agreed on definition of a "civilized society."
above
Which deterrents are you referencing? The death penalty? Lengthy jail sentences? Fines?
yes
At best this question is a feeble attempt at relying on a plethora of logical fallacies to strengthen your position. However, it clearly shows your inability, for whatever reason, to utilize basic critical reading and thinking skills.
In short, the question is useless as I’ve already stated who it would be applied to.
Sorry for relying on a plethora of logical fallacies. I am here to learn so hopefully in the future I wont have to rely on these fallacies.
I understand what you believe to be is the right "level" of deterrence and that my statement crossed your line. No need to go further with that.